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(I first give the specific sections of the May
1986 edition of "Biblical Errancy" that I cite in my first
letter).
Jesus
Vs. Paul ...(18) Jesus -- “I am not sent
but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matt. 15:24)
and "...Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into
any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the
lost sheep of the house of Israel” (Matt. 10:5-6) and “Give
not that which is holy unto dogs, neither cast ye your pearls
before swine..." (Matt. 7:6) and (Matt. 15:26, Mark 8:27, John
4:22) versus Paul -- "For there is no difference
between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is
rich unto all that call upon him" (Rom. 10:12) and For I am
not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of
God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew
first, and also to the Greek (Rom. 1:16) and "Even the
righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto
all and [upon] all them that believe: for there is no
difference" (Rom. 3:22) and (1 Tim. 2:6, Rom. 4:16,
2:26-29, 4:9-13, 23-24, 11:19-25). Jesus told his followers to
go only to the Jews, while Paul said there was no
difference between Jews and Greeks.
(21) Paul - - "Who
(Jesus -- Ed.) only hath immortality..." (1 Tim. 6:16)
versus Jesus -- “For God so loved the world, that he
gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him
should not perish, but have everlasting life” (John 3:16).
Paul had said only Jesus had immortality, while Jesus said
others have everlasting life, too. If Paul had said only Jesus
can provide immortality to others, there would have been no
problem. But he said only Jesus has immortality. Incidentally,
how can Paul say only Jesus is immortal when everyone is
immortal according to Christian beliefs whether desired or
not. It’s not a question of whether we are immortal but one of
where we will spend eternity.
(29) Jesus -- “Thou
shall do no murder (Matt. 19:18) versus Paul -- “Thou
shalt not kill” (Rom. 13:9). Jesus and Paul can’t seem to
agree on the wording of the 6th Commandment regarding killing.
Every moral and legal system recognizes a difference between
murder and killing. Paul outlaws killing while Jesus prefers a
less comprehensive restriction. If Paul’s rule prevails,
soldiers, police, and those killing in self-defense are in
trouble.
(31) Paul -- “..for
he- -one’s ruler -- beareth not the
sword in vain: for he is the minister of God
(Rom. 13:4) versus Jesus -- “Put up again thy sword into its
place for all they that take
the sword shall perish with
the sword’ (Matt. 26:52).
( 33)
Paul -- “...remember the words of the Lord Jesus, how he said
'It is more blessed to give than to receive'" (Acts 20:35).
Nowhere in Scripture does Jesus make such a statement. Matt.
10:8 (“...freely ye have received, freely give”) does not
apply.
(34) Jesus -- “I and
my Father are one (John 10:30) versus Paul -- “It is
Christ...who is even at the right hand of God..." (Rom. 8:34)
and “...the head of Christ is God” (1 Cor. 11:3) and
(Col. 3:1, Heb 9:24, 10:12, 1 Thess. 2:5). If Jesus is one
with God as he claims, then how could he be sitting beside, or
subservient to, God?
Letter #1, Section A:
May 29, 1986
Dear Mr. McKinsey:
I was recently sent a copy
of your periodical entitled “Biblical Errancy.” (May 1986). I
found it quite interesting, and representative of a view-point
I have encountered on numerous occasions. Though a full
refutation of the information in the newsletter would be
impractical, a few points should be brought up.
First, your commentary
entitled “Jesus vs. Paul" amazed me. Do you, sir, understand
the implications of the word “context? Does background,
chronology and language enter into this discussion? For
example, your first mentioned ‘contradiction’ (number 18)
completely ignores the chronological progression of events. It
tears the texts from their context and creates nothing but
confusion. Your final statement read, ‘Jesus told his
followers to go only to the Jews, while Paul said there
was no difference between Jews and Greeks.’ This ignores the
fact that Jesus’ statements were made before his death,
burial, and resurrection. After that event Jesus himself said,
‘Go ye therefore and teach all nations...’ (Matthew 28:19). To
postulate a contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the basis
of the passages you cited is simply illogical. Only
preconceived prejudice against the Bible could allow such a
contention. Is it possible, sir, that you are just as guilty
of such a preconception as many Christians are in their
remarks?
Section B:
Section 21, contrasting 1
Timothy 6:16 with John 3:16 provides another example. Later in
the periodical you mention people jumping from version to
version in an attempt to defend the Bible. I am surprised that
this would even be a problem. You, as the person initiating
the discussion, should realize that you are attacking (if you
don’t mind that term) the veracity of an ancient document that
was written in two languages - Hebrew and Greek (with some
Aramaic). Hence, I would assume that you would be fluent in
both languages, or, at the very least, in Greek, as Hebrew is
fairly basic, especially in comparison with koine Greek. At
any rate, a basic knowledge of Greek would have cleared up
your confusion concerning this example. The word found at 1
Timothy 6:16 is athanasian, whereas at John 3:16 it is
a phrase that is translated “eternal life,” that phrase being
z oen
aionion.
As you can see, you are comparing apples to
oranges. Also, you mention that only Jesus “has" immortality,
supposing this to be a contradiction of Christian teaching
concerning immortality of all people. Again, a simple
examination of the text is in order. The word translating
“hath” in the KJV is a participle in the original, echon.
The continuous action, without relationship to time
expressed by this participle is significant to the meaning of
the passage. I submit that it is your misunderstanding of the
passage in its original tongue that causes your
“contradiction." Your assault on the Bible without reference
to its original tongue is comparable to my attacking Goethe’s
Faust without a knowledge of German - few would seriously
consider my remarks valid.
Nowhere is this more
clearly seen than in the comment found under number 29. You
imagine a difference between Jesus’ words in Matthew 19:18
(Greek: on phoneuseis) and Paul’s in Romans 13:9
(Greek: on phoneuseis). As you can see, there is
absolutely no difference whatsoever in the two occurrences -
both are quoting directly from the Septuagint (LXX) version at
Exodus 20:13 (20:15 in the LXX). Your comments demonstrate an
extremely shallow depth of research on your part. I would hope
that you could remove this example in a coming edition of
“Biblical Errancy.”
Section C:
The examples such as the
above abound. Number 31 would be humorous if it were not found
in context of your periodical, as is #33 (see John 21:25).
Number 34 deals with in-depth theology, a subject that I
really don’t believe you are prepared to handle, given the
above examples of your work. What gender is the word “one” in,
and what significance does that have?
Section D:
At any rate, I do look
forward to receiving your work. I do not believe that you
demonstrated so much as one contradiction in your paper, and
looking over the vain attempts of atheists and others to
confound the Word of God only strengthens my faith in that
book. I do not blindly accept anything. I have examined your
“facts” and found them wanting. Please reply to the
information I have provided you.
Continue to Mr. McKinsey's
first reply
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