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Some time ago I was presented with an article,
"Calvin's Error of Limited Atonement" by Dr.
D.A.Waite, and subsequently began working on a joint response
with another member from Alpha and Omega Ministries.
The article seeks to attack Limited Atonement as affirmed by
historic Calvinism. It was my desire to compose a complete
response to all the issues raised in the article (which I
still hope to complete) but time constraints and other
correspondence projects have limited me (no pun intended) to
his opening arguments and his discussion of Isaiah 53. I trust
that the following is helpful in underscoring once again the
continued misrepresentation by non-Reformed people as they
vainly seek to refute what I believe to be the biblical
position on the atoning work of Christ.
I have chosen to cite Dr. Waite's comments en toto,
making my objections and comments when necessary. (The
original can be seen by clicking
here.) This will provide the necessary context for the
thoughts I wish to present. Dr. Waite begins with the
following:
The weakest link in John Calvin's philosophy (and I
call it "philosophy" instead of "theology"
because in this particular matter at least, he is 100%
contrary to the revealed will of God
as given to us in the Bible, hence, it cannot properly be
called "theology") is his
so-called false teaching on the "LIMITED
ATONEMENT," or the "L" in his followers
" T. U. L. I. P. "five points These five points,
in general, are as follows:
1. Total depravity of man
1. Unconditional election by God
1. Limited atonement by Christ
1. Irresistible grace of the Holy Spirit
1. Perseverance of the believers in salvation
Whether or not John Calvin himself formulated these
five points as such, or whether they were
mere formulations of the followers of John Calvin, based
upon CALVIN'S INSTITUTES OF THE
CHRISTIAN RELIGION, is not the question. The main point is
that these FIVE POINTS, or the "T U L
I. P." presently characterize the theology which
is called by its strictest adherents,
"CALVINISM." For this reason, we have chosen the
title, CALVIN'S ERROR OF "LIMITED
ATONEMENT". It could, perhaps, just as easily
be called "CALVINISM'S ERROR OF 'LIMITED
ATONEMENT.'"
By this title, there is but ONE major
consideration to be taken up in this study, and that is the
strictly LIMITED coverage of Calvinism's "LIMITED
ATONEMENT" teaching. It is NOT our purpose to discuss
any of the other FIVE POINTS of the "T.U.L.I.P." I
am attacking ONLY the THIRD POINT or the "L" of
the "T U L. I P." without discussing pro or con
the other FOUR POINTS. This has been done, because for me at
least, this is the most IMPORTANT ERROR of Calvinism today.
I. "Limited Atonement" Defined
A. LIMITED ATONEMENT DEFINED BY
"STRICT" CALVINISTS.
The so-called "strict"
Calvinists, such as those in the Dutch Reformed Tradition,
and other strict Reformed and
Presbyterian traditions define LIMITED ATONEMENT as the
theory that the death of the Lord Jesus
Christ on Calvary's cross was strictly LIMITED in any
and all of its aspects ONLY TO THE ELECT or saved ones, or
believers in Christ. It had nothing
whatsoever to do with the unsaved or the non-elect people of
the world. In NO sense whatever, according to this FALSE
VIEW, could you tell a sinner in the audience who eventually
would NOT be saved in his lifetime, that "CHRIST DIED
FOR YOUR SINS." Christ died (in this FALSE VIEW) ONLY
for the sins of the ELECT, and NOT for the sins of the
non-elect in any sense whatsoever! This is the definition of
"LIMITED ATONEMENT" which I will argue against as
being unscriptural and, in effect, therefore, a heretical
doctrine!
I am sure that what Dr. Waite meant at this point was that
Calvinists define the extent of Christ's redeeming
work as intended only for the elect and not the reprobate. To
say "it had nothing whatsoever to
do with the unsaved or the non-elect people" is
misleading. While it is true that all
non-elect people are unsaved it is not equally true that all
unsaved people are non-elect. All men are by nature children
of wrath, spiritually dead and without hope, "but God who
is rich in mercy" (Eph.2:4) in sovereign power and grace
is even now saving from every tribe, kindred, nation, and
tongue a multitude whom no man can number.
I was very disappointed in the lack of accuracy and the
misrepresentations that characterized the entire
work that Dr. Waite has provided. Dr. Waite is a recognized
teacher and theologian and one would expect a more sensitive
approach to accuracy than the one presented in this
presentation. Already, in just a few short paragraphs, we are
informed that Calvinism, and in particular, the teaching
concerning Limited Atonement is FALSE. More than a few times,
it seems, that Dr. Waite is seeking to prejudice his readers
with such proclamations before a single argument has been
presented. While this unfortunately might skew the objectivity
of some, others will see this as an insecure measure to
proclaim something false that in the end is difficult to
demonstrate as false. If Dr. Waite was certain that Limited
Atonement, as defined by historic Calvinism (not the
caricature of Arminianism), was inaccurate, then his
demonstration through sound exegesis would be sufficient
without having to prompt the reader.
Further, the definitions provided by Dr. Waite are
misleading, not only in what they say but also in what they do
not say. It would appear that the only aspect and definition
of Limited Atonement that Dr. Waite is concerned in addressing
is the extent of the atonement. It is interesting to note this
statement by Dr. Waite: "In NO sense whatever, according
to this FALSE VIEW, could you tell a sinner in the audience
who eventually would NOT be saved in his lifetime, that
'CHRIST DIED FOR YOUR SINS'". It would seem that Dr.
Waite is suggesting that such appeals are part and parcel of
the gospel message, and anything short of such statements
conveys a weakness or error in the message.
The gospel message is certainly that Christ died for
sinners (and I would add not just "for" but to
"save" sinners). The appeal, however,
in the book of Acts, is that men are to repent and believe the
gospel that has as its basis the finished work of Christ. No
appeal can be found in the evangelism of the book of Acts that
has as its basis Christ dying for this or that specific
person. Where does Peter in Acts chapter
two tell the men of Israel, "You need to repent and
believe because Jesus died for you?"
Rather, after declaring that Christ had been delivered by the
determinate counsel of God, that he had
been crucified, buried, and rose again, He proclaims the
following,
"Therefore let all the house of Israel know
assuredly that God has made this Jesus whom you crucified,
both Lord and Christ. Now when they heard this, they were
cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the
apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? Then Peter
said to them, Repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in
the name of the Lord Jesus Christ for the remission of
sins." (Acts 2:36-38).
Peter, John, Stephen, Philip, Paul, and all those who
preached the gospel throughout the book of Acts
consistently employ this same message and method. Who were
those who heard this message? They were the men of Israel, the
sick and lame, the rulers, elders, scribes, and the high
priest, the Ethiopian eunuch, those in the synagogues,
Cornelius and his household, the Phillipian jailer, Lydia, the
men at Athens, Festus, King Aggripa, etc. Yet please note that
they were never told that they needed to believe and repent because
CHRIST DIED FOR YOU." How could these men preach
(and by the way thousands were converted) such a message
without saying what Dr. Waite views as such an integral part
of the gospel appeal?
It cannot be underscored enough that the one who truly
understands the nature of the atonement and His need of
the Savior can truly say, as the Apostle says, that Christ
died "for me" (Gal.2:20). But the one who does not
view the personal and particular nature of the atonement but
rather ascribes to a general and therefore impersonal
atonement, makes such a statement inconsistently with their
position.
Finally, Dr. Waite has attempted to divorce the extent of
the atonement from the nature of the atonement. While
there is certainly a distinction between the two they are
nonetheless inseparable and hence, as we shall later
demonstrate, such a dichotomy is untenable. The fact that
historic Calvinism believes that the atonement was made for
the elect and only the elect is bound up in the biblical
teachings concerning the death of Jesus Christ. Did Christ die
for everyone in general but no one in particular, or was there
a specific purpose with a particular intent that moved the Son
of God to give His life for sinners?
It does indeed seem strange that Dr. Waite would leave out
any discussion on the nature of the atonement.
It is as if Dr. Waite is trying to argue backwards, to
"put the cart before the horse." Since the extent of
the atonement has as its origin the nature of the atonement
and not the other way around, it is no wonder that there are
many who are confused. A related parallel is that of election
and conversion. All the focus is placed on conversion and that
focus is then used to read backward and unfortunately redefine
election where conversion has its origin. Since this is the
trail that Dr. Waite chooses to follow then we shall reason
with him hopefully taking our trail back to where we should
have started to begin with.
B. LIMITED ATONEMENT DEFINED BY "MIXED-UP"
CALVINISTS
There is, however, a school of what I term
"mixed-up" Calvinists, who think they also hold
to a "LIMITED ATONEMENT" theory who teach that
Christ's death was sufficient for the whole world, but
efficient or effective only for those who believe in the
Lord Jesus Christ as their Savior. This explanation of
Christ's death is CORRECT, and is Scripturally SOUND, but
it is NOT the proper definition of "LIMITED
ATONEMENT," and all who hold it, therefore, are NOT
believers in "LIMITED ATONEMENT," but rather in
"UNLIMITED ATONEMENT." This is an important
distinction to bear in mind as we progress in our study.
I had to wonder what Dr. Waite meant by
"mixed-up" Calvinists. Since these
"mixed-up" Calvinists believe
in a Unlimited Atonement and since Dr. Waite has already
stated by innuendo his opposition to the famous five points of
Calvinism, then who are these "mixed-up" Calvinists?
Could these "mixed-up" Calvinists be nothing more
than inconsistent Arminians? Those who simply want to borrow
from Calvinism those truths they like, such as eternal
security, but reject those truths they do not like, such as
predestination and election, and the particularity of the
atonement?
I also noticed that Dr. Waite asserts that these
"mixed-up" Calvinists believe correctly that
Christ's death was sufficient for all but only efficient
for the elect. Why is this statement missing from the
definitions given concerning "strict" Calvinists? Is
there perhaps an implication that "strict"
Calvinists do not believe that Christ's death was sufficient
to save all? Indeed, we wholeheartedly affirm that the death
of Christ was of immeasurable worth. Sufficient, if He had
purposed, to redeem every single man, woman, and child that
would ever live. In fact, this is where the argument turns
against Dr. Waite. Why? It is because the "strict"
Calvinist boldly affirms that the death of Christ in and of
itself was sufficient to save all those for whom it was made.
By contrast, the position that Dr. Waite is presenting is that
Christ's death was insufficient in and of itself to accomplish
it's intended purpose and can only become
"efficient" when the sinner chooses to appropriate
it.
It should be clearly noted as one reads
through this presentation that there are two views of Limited
Atonement being presented. Dr. Waite is seeking
to address only one. The one view held by "strict"
Calvinists, views the work of Christ as perfect, complete, and
in and of itself efficacious to save all those for whom it was
made. The limitation in view here is not the with reference to
efficacy but scope or extent. The other Limited
Atonement being presented is the one by Dr. Waite. It is the
view that believes that Christ's death in and of itself was
not efficacious but can only become efficacious when the
sinner appropriates it. The limit is in the efficacy---the
extent or scope is universal. Many "cringe" at such
a definition but such a definition is true. If, according to
Arminianism, the atoning work of Christ is contingent upon
human appropriation, i.e. faith, then that atonement is
limited. Hence, it is theoretically possible that Christ could
have atoned for every individual and yet have had no one
appropriate its saving benefits. The question then to be asked
is, which position of Limited Atonement does the Bible teach?
Is it one that is limited in extent (Calvinism) or one that is
limited in efficacy (mixed-up Calvinists/Arminians)?
II. "Limited Atonement" Refuted By The
Scriptures
The best way of refuting the false view of
"LIMITED ATONEMENT" as defined above is by
making specific reference to various verses in the Bible
that teach clearly an "UNLIMITED ATONEMENT."
Obviously, the Bible cannot teach both an "UNLIMITED
ATONEMENT" and at the same time "LIMITED
ATONEMENT" as defined above. Only one is correct, and
the other must be incorrect, since these two systems of
belief are contradictory the one to another.
Again, as this presentation unfolds, which of
the two views of Limited Atonement will be demonstrated
(not declared, as Dr. Waite is apt to do) to be false? That
view which limits the extent, or that view which limits the
efficacy of the work of Christ? Dr. Waite is correct in saying
that the Bible cannot teach both. May those who choose
to read set aside presuppositions and search the Scriptures to
see if these things be so.
A. Isaiah 53:5-6 REFUTES "LIMITED ATONEMENT."
"But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was
bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace
was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. All we
like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to
his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of
us all." (Isa 53:5-6)
l. Isaiah 53:5-6 Is A Messianic Reference
This section of the book of Isaiah is a reference to
the Messiah of God, the Lord Jesus Christ. It is teaching
clearly concerning the Lord's death for sinners on
Calvary's cross. Christ was the "servant" spoken
of in Isaiah 52:13. Fundamentalists and even evangelicals
are in agreement on this point.
This is a wonderful passage that has brought comfort, hope,
and encouragement to God's people for centuries. The promised
Messiah and His work to rescue and redeem sinners is clearly
the focus of this passage. The primary emphasis of this
passage is the substitutionary work of the Suffering Servant
in behalf of His people. While Waite affirms that the passage
"is teaching clearly concerning the Lord's death for
sinners" he nonetheless deviates from that main emphasis
to make it appear that the prophet's primary concern is the
universality of sin thereby seeking to make a universal
application.
2. The Pronoun Antecedents In Isaiah 53:5-6.
In our King James Version's English text of Isaiah
53:5-6, there are eight pronouns (underlined above) and
two "all's" whose antecedents must be clearly
understood in order to understand the meaning of these
verses. Of the EIGHT pronouns, there are three
"ours"; three "we's"; one
"his"; and one "us." Various views
have been advanced in giving the antecedents of these
eight pronouns
2a. Some Say The Pronouns Refer To The Jews Only
There are some who take these eight pronouns to refer
to the Jews only, so that the sacrifice of Christ is only
of merit for Jews to whom Isaiah is writing. Here is how
Isaiah 53:5-6 would paraphrased, if this view were to be
accepted as the truth:
Isaiah 53:5-6 PARAPHRASED FALSELY: "But Christ was
wounded for our Jewish transgressions only, He was bruised
for our Jewish iniquities only: the chastisement of our
Jewish peace was upon Him; and with His stripes we Jews
only are healed. All we Jews only have, like sheep, gone
astray; we Jews only have turned every one of us to his
own way; and the LORD hath laid on Christ only the
iniquity of all of us Jews, but nobody else." (Isaiah
53:5-6, PARAPHRASED FALSELY)
It is obvious to all that since Isaiah was a Jew, and
the people to whom he was writing were Jews, it is
POSSIBLE to think that Isaiah was writing exclusively as a
Jew to fellow-Jews. But this would contradict the other
teachings of the Bible relating to the death of Christ on
the Cross. I do not believe Isaiah was speaking as a
"JEW" in this passage and thus to not believe
that the eight pronouns and the two "all's"
refer exclusively to JEWS.
Though I would agree that Isaiah is not addressing only the
Jews, I would disagree with Waite's impression that Isaiah was
not writing as a "JEW" (whatever that means). Since
Isaiah was a Jew, he wrote as a Jew to a Jewish people, which
is clearly the immediate context. Though there is a broader
application, the immediate context cannot be ignored.
2b. Some Say The Pronouns Refer To The
"ELECT" Only Of Old And New Testaments
Those who hold to the false view of "LIMITED
ATONEMENT" as defined above (p 1-2), take the eight
pronouns and the two "all's" to refer only to
the "ELECT" or "believers" of the Old
and the New Testament periods. Here is how Isaiah 53:5-6
would be paraphrased, if this view were to be accepted as
the truth.
Isaiah 53:5-6 PARAPHRASED FALSELY: "But Christ was
wounded only for the benefit of the elect's
transgressions, He was bruised only for the elect's
iniquities: the chastisement of the elect's peace only was
upon Him; and with His stripes only we elect are healed.
Only all we elect ones like sheep have gone astray; only
we elect have turned every one to his own way; and the
LORD hath laid on Him the iniquity of only the
elect." (Isaiah 53:5-6 PARAPHRASED FALSELY).
This is an unsatisfactory interpretation. Though Isaiah
was an Old Testament believer, it does not seem to fit the
entire context of the Bible in reference to Christ's
atonement at Calvary to have him limit these eight
pronouns to the elect. This, however, as the
interpretation above, is a POSSIBLE interpretation, but it
is not PROBABLY true.
Please notice that Dr. Waite has here deviated from his
opening comments about this passage. His
"false paraphrases" aside, the passage is primarily
(asserted by Waite at the outset) dealing with the death of
Christ. Yet Waite's continued focus is not on the death of
Christ and what it accomplishes, but rather his emphasis is on
the extent of His work. While the recipients of Christ's
atonement are an integral part of the passage, and cannot be
severed from the work of Christ, the primary emphasis of this
passage is the work of Christ as Substitute. Here Dr. Waite is
seeking to define extent before he defines nature.
2c. The Pronouns Refer To All Sinners Of All Ages
This is the correct interpretation of these words from
Isaiah 53:5-6. Isaiah was not only a JEW, and a BELIEVER,
but he was also a MEMBER OF THE HUMAN RACE. I believe that
the eight pronouns and the two "all's" in Isaiah
53:5-6 refer to ALL MANKIND without a single exception of
any kind.
(1) Isaiah 53:5-6 Paraphrased Truly
Here is how Isaiah 53:5-6 might be paraphrased truly if
this is the proper interpretation as I think that it is:
Isaiah 53:5-6 PARAPHRASED PROPERLY: "But Christ
was wounded for the transgressions of every person who
ever lived without exception. He was bruised for the
iniquities of every person who ever lived without
exception: the chastisement of the peace of every person
who ever lived without exception was upon Him; and with
His stripes every person who ever lived without exception
is healed (but not necessarily SAVED or REDEEMED or
JUSTIFIED). All of us persons who ever lived without
exception like sheep have gone astray; all of us persons
who ever lived without exception have turned every one of
us to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on Christ the
iniquity of every person who ever lived without
exception." (Isaiah 53:5-6 PARAPHRASED PROPERLY).
It is important to note that "healed" does
not imply either SALVATION, REDEMPTION, or JUSTIFICATION,
but merely that there has been a "healing" of
the deep wound of sin through Calvary's cross. In this
view, all eight pronouns and the two "alls"
refer to every person in the world who ever lived.
Much could be said at this point. Waite is once again
declaring victory before presenting a meaningful
argument. The above paraphrase is the most untenable of the
three paraphrases that he presents. In his first paraphrase,
it needs to be re-emphasized that the immediate context is
indeed dealing with the Jews, more specifically, God's people,
and the people to WHOM the Messiah was promised. In his second
paraphrase, there is an inescapable connection between
Christ's work as Substitute and those people for whom He is
Substitute. However, in this third paraphrase there is
absolutely nothing plausible in the paraphrase that Dr. Waite
is providing. In essence this is what is
being said:
"But Christ was wounded for every person who ever
lived without exception" though the vast majority
of every single individual for whom Christ died will
ultimately perish.
"He was bruised for the iniquities of every person
who ever lived without exception" though the vast
majority of every single individual for whom Christ died
will ultimately perish.
"The chastisement of the peace of every person who
ever lived without exception was upon Him; and with His
stripes every person who ever lived without exception is
healed".
I would have been inclined to add this next part but Dr.
Waite added it for me,
"(But not necessarily SAVED or REDEEMED or
JUSTIFIED)".
"All of us persons who ever lived without exception
like sheep have gone astray; all of us persons
who ever lived without exception have turned every one of us
to his own way; and the LORD hath
laid on Christ the iniquity of every person who ever lived
without exception" but
unfortunately the vast majority of every single individual for
whom Christ died will ultimately
perish.
Please notice that Dr. Waite, sensing the weight of the
position he is advocating, must make the following
comment, "It is important to note that 'healed' does not
imply either SALVATION, REDEMPTION, or JUSTIFICATION, but
merely that there has been a 'healing' of the deep wound of
sin through Calvary's cross. In this view, all eight pronouns
and the two 'alls' refer to every person in the world who ever
lived." Waite asserts that healed
doesn't even "imply" salvation, redemption, or
justification. This is where the advocates of
Unlimited Atonement must redefine terms. The Bible never
allows for such a disjunction between the atonement itself and
those for whom it is made. The Scriptures are clear as to the
results of the work of Christ: it heals, saves, redeems,
justifies, and reconciles all those for whom it is made.
That Waite would say that "healing" doesn't even
imply salvation or justification is amazing. In the immediate
context (though Dr. Waite only cites v.5-6) we have this
statement made concerning those for whom atonement was made,
"He shall see the labor of His soul and be satisfied.
By His knowledge My righteous Servant SHALL JUSTIFY MANY, for
He shall bear THEIR iniquities."
Would Dr. Waite have us to believe that the Father would see
of the travail of His Son's soul and be satisfied when the
majority of those for whom he labored would perish?
Heal doesn't imply salvation? Do you think that
the Jews in hearing of the promised Messiah were
"merely" looking for "a 'healing' of the deep
wound of sin through Calvary's cross? No, they were
looking for DELIVERANCE! The Apostle Peter had no problem
whatsoever in recognizing what the Prophet was saying for in
calling the believers to follow in the example of Christ's
sufferings he reminds them of their great Substitute and the
salvation that His work accomplished.
Both Isaiah and Peter present the substitutionary work of
Christ as an accomplished work that has procured
salvation for God's people---Isaiah prophetically and Peter
historically. Please notice Peter's exegesis of Isaiah 53 as
he cites from the Septuagint.
For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also
suffered for us, leaving us an example,
that ye should follow his steps: 22 Who did no sin, neither
was guile found in his mouth: 23 Who, when he was reviled,
reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but
committed himself to him that judgeth
righteously: 24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own
body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live
unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. 25 For
ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the
Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.[1 Peter 2:21-25]
Peter makes specific reference to the text that Waite says
doesn't even "imply" salvation. Yet Peter in
exegeting Isaiah's comments not only implies but also
explicitly affirms the accomplished results of the work of
Christ in our behalf. Please notice the substitutionary
language, "Who His own self bore OUR sins in His own body
on the tree" This emphasizes what He did, He presented
Himself as the sin offering upon Calvary's tree of judgment.
Why did he do this? He did for those for whom that offering
was made "OUR sins." Peter is writing, as was
Isaiah, to God's people that are the elect (I Peter 1:1-2).
Now what does Peter say was the result of that offering?
"That WE (notice the pronoun) having died
to sins." Here the aorist participle, apogeno,menoi,
is used to describe that which took place at the time of the
main verb avnh,negken.
Since the main verb is also aorist, "bore our sins,"
then in this sense Peter is saying that we died, that is as to
sins penalty, WHEN Christ died as OUR Substitute. It would be
my contention that the grammar of the text suggests that our
dying to sin was related, in strict substitution, to the death
of Christ.
Further Peter asserts that the result of that
substitutionary and sacrificial death (Christ's dying and
our dying in Him) accomplishes something,
namely salvation (similar to what Paul says in Eph. 5:25-27).
Notice the purpose clause, "in order that we might live
for righteousness" (there is a definite purpose for those
for whom Christ atones). Notice these next words:
"by whose stripes YOU were healed." Would Peter say
"It is important to note that 'healed' does not imply
either SALVATION, REDEMPTION, or JUSTIFICATION, but merely
that there has been a "healing" of the deep wound of
sin through Calvary's cross"? I don't think so.
Peter concludes with the analogy that was so familiar to OT
believers, that of the sheep and the Shepherd.
While I would not want to press the analogy too far, there is
a sense, both in the OT and in the NT, where the sheep seem to
refer to the people of God and their direct relationship to
the Shepherd. In the Old Testament Yahweh is called the
Shepherd (Ps.23). In the New Testament the Lord Jesus Christ
is described as the "Good Shepherd" (John 10). So
what does Isaiah mean when he says, "all we like sheep
have gone astray"?
Scripture clearly teaches the fact that all have sinned
(Rom.3), and certainly those to whom Isaiah and
Peter were writing could identify with the fact that like
sheep they had wandered and had turned everyone to his own
way. However, is Isaiah's focus on the universality of sin
(like Paul's in Rom.3) or rather is his focus on the
substitutionary death for the sheep which have wandered? Let
us allow Peter to answer:
"For you were like sheep going astray, but have now
returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your
souls."
(2) Evidences In The Context of Isaiah 53:5-6 Where
Isaiah referred To ALL MANKIND As Human Beings .
Notice some of the references right here in the context
of Isaiah 53:5-6 where Isaiah refers to MANKIND as a whole
and thus which makes it possible and even PROBABLE that
these eight pronouns and two "all's" also refer to
MANKIND GENERALLY.
Dr. Waite is arguing in circles and is desperately trying
to find any reference to men in general in
order to import a universal application to Isaiah 53. That
Isaiah refers to men, nations, etc. has nothing whatsoever to
do with those found In Isaiah 53 for whom ATONEMENT is made.
It would be the same kind of illogical reasoning as if someone
were to read a letter I had given to my Arian grandfather. In
that letter, I set forth the truth concerning the deity of
Christ. Through the course of the letter I also made
references to other family members (their health, greetings,
etc.,) but NEVER in the context of the discussion on the deity
of Christ. Finally, if that person who read the letter
concluded that every person mentioned in my letter was Arian,
such would be a ridiculous error.
(a) Isaiah 52:14a -- "Any man" - When Isaiah
wrote "As many were astonished at thee; his visage
was so marred more than any MAN, (Isa 52:14a) he was
referring to ALL MANKIND, and to "ANY MAN" as a
representative of the human race.
What does His appearance in comparison to other human
beings have to do with the recipients of
His atonement?
(b) Isaiah 52:14b -- "The Son Of Men" - and
His form more than the SONS OF MEN:". This reference
to the "SONS OF MEN" applies to ALL MANKIND and
every one in the human race - not just to the Jew or to
the elect alone.
Since Christ was a Man, and since as a Man he would suffer
and His appearance be marred, with whom
does he think Isaiah is to compare him? A tree, a rock, an
animal? Of course not! The fact that
Isaiah compares his appearance with that of other men does not
mean that we can now import a universal
application to Isaiah 53.
(c) Isaiah 52:l5 -- "Many Nations" - "So
shall he sprinkle many nations; the kings shall shut their
mouths at him:" Again, the reference is to many of
the unsaved nations, not Jews and not the elect.
Please notice the text qualifies something for us,
"many" nations. Why doesn't Isaiah say
"all" or "every"
nation? Is the prophet presenting a scope?
(d) Isaiah 53:3a -- "Rejected Of Men " -
"He is despised and rejected of men;..."Again
the reference is to ALL MANKIND, and to human beings as a
whole, and not only to the Jews or to the elect. This
certainly fits the context when you take the "OF
MEN" in Isaiah 53:3a and make the following pronouns
all refer to Isaiah as a "MAN" saying that
"WE MEN AS MEN AS IT WERE OUR FACES FROM Him; He was
despised, and WE MEN AS MEN esteemed him not. Surely He
hath borne OUR (AS MEN) griefs, and carried OUR SORROWS AS
MEN; yet WE MEN did esteem Him stricken, smitten of God
and afflicted. But He was wounded for OUR TRANSGRESSIONS
AS MEN, He was bruised . " This makes complete sense,
and is by all probabilities the meaning of this passage in
context.
I am afraid not. Please notice the way in which Isaiah uses
his pronouns. That He is despised and rejected
by men in general is understood. But please notice that when
the Prophet states this he is speaking
in the third person. Please notice, however, that when the
prophet begins to unfold the work of
Christ as Substitute he no longer uses the third person, but
uses ALL 1st PERSON PLURAL PRONOUNS.
To convey what Waite is trying to assert,
namely that Christ died for every individual person who
ever lived, Isaiah should have said, borrowing from Waite's
paraphrasing method, "He is
despised and rejected by men, a man of sorrows and
acquainted with grief. And men hid, as it were, their
faces from Him; He was despised, and men did not esteem
Him. Surely He has borne men's
griefs and carried men's sorrows; Yet men
esteemed Him stricken, smitten by God and afflicted. But
he was wounded for men's transgressions, he was bruised
for men's iniquities; the chastisement for men's
peace was upon Him. And by His stripes men were healed
(though not necessarily saved) all men like sheep have
gone astray, men have turned every one to his own way,
and the Lord hath laid on Him the iniquity of all men."
Yet as you can see, the prophet does not employ the third
person when referring to those for whom atonement is made. He
uses the very personal 1st person plurals "we,"
"our" and "us". Who are the
"we," "our" and "us"? I think
the context is very clear. They are God's covenant people.
Please notice the passages that Dr. Waite did not cite:
Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore My people shall know
My name; therefore in that day I am the one who is speaking,
'Here I am."' 7 How lovely on the
mountains Are the feet of him who brings good news, Who
announces peace And brings good news of happiness, Who
announces salvation, And says to Zion, "Your God
reigns!" 8 Listen! Your watchmen
lift up their voices, They shout joyfully together;
For they will see with their own eyes When the LORD restores
Zion. 9 Break forth, shout joyfully
together, You waste places of Jerusalem; For the LORD has
comforted His people, He has redeemed
Jerusalem.
Now please notice the passages following Isaiah 53:5-6,
that clearly identify who the "we, "our,"
and "us," are:
Isaiah 53:7 He was oppressed and He was afflicted, Yet He
did not open His mouth; Like a lamb that is led to
slaughter, And like a sheep that is silent before its
shearers, So He did not open His mouth. 8
By oppression and judgment He was taken away; And as for His
generation, who considered That He was cut off out of the
land of the living For the transgression of my people,
to whom the stroke was due? 9
His grave was assigned with wicked men, Yet He was with a
rich man in His death, Because He had done no violence, Nor
was there any deceit in His mouth. 10
But the LORD was pleased To crush Him, putting Him to
grief; If He would render Himself as a guilt
offering, He will see His offspring, He will prolong His
days, And the good pleasure of the LORD will prosper in
His hand. 11 As a result of the
anguish of His soul, He will see it and be satisfied;
By His knowledge the Righteous One, My Servant, will
justify the many, As He will bear their
iniquities. 12 Therefore, I will
allot Him a portion with the great, And He will divide the
booty with the strong; Because He poured out Himself to
death, And was numbered with the transgressors; Yet He
Himself bore the sin of many, And interceded
for the transgressors.
Finally, please note the connection between those for whom
atonement is made and those for whom intercession is made.
Upon what basis does Christ intercede? His work upon the
cross. For whom then does He intercede? His people. You cannot
separate His work of sacrifice from His work of intercession;
they are joined works of His office as our High Priest. This
will be developed more fully in our closing presentation.
A look at the context, the Apostle Peter's exegesis of
this text, and the emphasis on the work of Christ clearly
refutes the presentation given by Dr. Waite.
If one is looking for a specific treatment of the universality
of sin (like Dr. Waite) then one should
turn to Rom.3. If, however, one is looking for the
substitutionary work of Christ in the behalf of His people,
then one will find a wonderful treasure in Isaiah 53. |